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The CASP+ certification is ideal for those who have experience in the cybersecurity field and want to take their careers to the next level. It covers a wide range of topics, including risk management, enterprise security architecture, research, and collaboration, among others. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification will help professionals demonstrate their ability to assess and mitigate risks, design secure solutions, and implement best practices to protect their organization's information assets.
CompTIA CAS-004 exam is intended for IT professionals who have a strong background in network security and information security. It is designed to test the skills and knowledge of candidates in identifying and assessing security risks, implementing security solutions, and managing security operations in complex enterprise environments. CAS-004 exam is vendor-neutral, which means that it is not focused on any specific technology or product. Instead, it tests the candidate's ability to apply security principles and best practices in various scenarios.
CompTIA CAS-004 Exam is a challenging certification exam that requires a thorough understanding of security principles and practices. It covers a wide range of topics, including enterprise security architecture, secure communication and collaboration, and risk management. Professionals who successfully pass the exam demonstrate their ability to design and implement secure solutions that meet the needs of their organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 241
A software development company makes Its software version available to customers from a web portal. On several occasions, hackers were able to access the software repository to change the package that is automatically published on the website. Which of the following would be the BEST technique to ensure the software the users download is the official software released by the company?
- A. Close the web repository and deliver the software via email.
- B. Display the SHA checksum on the website.
- C. Email the software link to all customers.
- D. Distribute the software via a third-party repository.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 242
In a cloud environment, the provider offers relief to an organization's teams by sharing in many of the operational duties. In a shared responsibility model, which of the following responsibilities belongs to the provider in a Paas implementation?
- A. Application-specific logic and code
- B. Application user access management
- C. Application/platform software
- D. Application-specific data assets
Answer: C
Explanation:
A) Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.
B) Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must also ensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.
C) Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.
https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS Explanation:
In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization's teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.
NEW QUESTION # 243
An organization mat provides a SaaS solution recently experienced an incident involving customer data loss. The system has a level of sell-healing that includes monitoring performance and available resources. When me system detects an issue, the self-healing process is supposed to restart pans of me software.
During the incident, when me self-healing system attempted to restart the services, available disk space on the data drive to restart all the services was inadequate. The self-healing system did not detect that some services did not fully restart and declared me system as fully operational. Which of the following BEST describes me reason why the silent failure occurred?
- A. The number of nodes in me self-healing cluster was healthy,
- B. Conditional checks prior to the service restart succeeded.
- C. The disk utilization alarms are higher than what me service restarts require.
- D. The system logs rotated prematurely.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 244
SIMULATION
You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company's privileged network.
The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only) The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines) If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation below for the solution
Explanation:
10.1.45.65 SFTP Server Disable 8080
10.1.45.66 Email Server Disable 415 and 443
10.1.45.67 Web Server Disable 21, 80
10.1.45.68 UTM Appliance Disable 21
NEW QUESTION # 245
A company's human resources department recently had its own shadow IT department spin up ten VMs that host a mixture of differently labeled data types (confidential and restricted) on the same VMs.
Which of the following cloud and visualization considerations would BEST address the issue presented in this scenario?
- A. Vulnerabilities associated with a single server hosting multiple data types should have been considered.
- B. Type 1vs Type 2 hypervisor approaches should have been considered
- C. Vulnerabilities associated with shared hosting services provided by the IT department should have been considered.
- D. Vulnerabilities associated with a single platform hosting multiple data types on VMs should have been considered
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 246
A security architect is tasked with scoping a penetration test that will start next month. The architect wants to define what security controls will be impacted. Which of the following would be the BEST document to consult?
- A. Master service agreement
- B. Target audience
- C. Rules of engagement
- D. Statement of work
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 247
A security analyst is reviewing the following output:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Placing a WAF inline
- B. Deploying a honeypot
- C. Implementing an IDS
- D. Installing a network firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Firewall does not make sense in this scenario. Best mitigation from those available is the WAF.
NEW QUESTION # 248
A development team created a mobile application that contacts a company's back-end APIs housed in a PaaS environment. The APIs have been experiencing high processor utilization due to scraping activities. The security engineer needs to recommend a solution that will prevent and remedy the behavior.
Which of the following would BEST safeguard the APIs? (Choose two.)
- A. Rate limiting
- B. Input validation
- C. CSRF protection
- D. Bot protection
- E. Autoscaling endpoints
- F. OAuth 2.0
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Although I might agree that OAuth 2.0 could be an answer as well, since it can help with rate limiting by accepting only authorized traffic, this is not as specific as it should be for the proposed scenario.
Bot protection is a security measure that helps prevent automated scraping activities by detecting and blocking malicious bots that attempt to access the APIs. This can help reduce the processor utilization on the APIs and prevent scraping activities from affecting the performance of the system.
Rate limiting is a security measure that limits the number of requests that can be made to an API within a given time period. By implementing rate limiting, the security engineer can help prevent scraping activities that may cause high processor utilization on the APIs.
NEW QUESTION # 249
A consultant needs access to a customer's cloud environment. The customer wants to enforce the following engagement requirements:
* All customer data must remain under the control of the customer at all times.
* Third-party access to the customer environment must be controlled by the customer.
* Authentication credentials and access control must be under the customer's control.
Which of the following should the consultant do to ensure all customer requirements are satisfied when accessing the cloud environment?
- A. use the customer's SSO with read-only credentials and share data using the customer's provisioned secure network storage
- B. use the customer-provided VDI solution to perform work on the customer's environment.
- C. Request API credentials from the customer and only use API calls to access the customer's environment.
- D. Provide code snippets to the customer and have the customer run code and securely deliver its output
Answer: B
Explanation:
The consultant should use the customer-provided VDI solution to perform work on the customer's environment. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop hosted on a remote server. VDI can help meet the customer's requirements by ensuring that all customer data remains under the customer's control at all times, that third-party access to the customer environment is controlled by the customer, and that authentication credentials and access control are under the customer's control. Verified Reference:
https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/
https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/
NEW QUESTION # 250
Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?
- A. Review the subpoena
- B. Initiate a legal hold.
- C. Perform e-discovery.
- D. Refer to the retention policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization's good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:
https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/
https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/
NEW QUESTION # 251
A company requires a task to be carried by more than one person concurrently. This is an example of:
- A. dual control
- B. least privilege
- C. separation of d duties.
- D. job rotation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Dual control is a security principle that requires two or more authorized individuals to perform a task concurrently. This reduces the risk of fraud, error, or misuse of sensitive assets or information. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2018/volume-1/using-dual-control-to-mitigate-risk
NEW QUESTION # 252
A security analyst is using data provided from a recent penetration test to calculate CVSS scores to prioritize remediation. Which of the following metric groups would the analyst need to determine to get the overall scores? (Select THREE).
- A. Temporal
- B. Availability
- C. Impact
- D. Attack vector
- E. Environmental
- F. Integrity
- G. Base
- H. Confidentiality
Answer: A,E,G
Explanation:
The three metric groups that are needed to calculate CVSS scores are Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics represent the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Temporal metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that may change over time but not across user environments. The Environmental metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a particular user's environment. Verified Reference:
https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
https://www.first.org/cvss/specification-document
NEW QUESTION # 253
A large industrial system's smart generator monitors the system status and sends alerts to third- party maintenance personnel when critical failures occur. While reviewing the network logs, the company's security manager notices the generator's IP is sending packets to an internal file server's IP. Which of the following mitigations would be BEST for the security manager to implement while maintaining alerting capabilities?
- A. Containment
- B. Isolation
- C. Segmentation
- D. Firewall whitelisting
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 254
The OS on several servers crashed around the same time for an unknown reason. The servers were restored to working condition, and all file integrity was verified. Which of the following should the incident response team perform to understand the crash and prevent it in the future?
- A. Root cause analysis
- B. Continuity of operations plan
- C. Lessons learned
- D. After-action report
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 255
The Chief information Officer (CIO) of a large bank, which uses multiple third-party organizations to deliver a service, is concerned about the handling and security of customer data by the parties. Which of the following should be implemented to BEST manage the risk?
- A. Establish a team using members from first line risk, the business unit, and vendor management to assess only design security controls of all suppliers. Store findings from the reviews in a database for all other business units and risk teams to reference.
- B. Establish an audit program that regularly reviews all suppliers regardless of the data they access, how they access the data, and the type of data, Review all design and operational controls based on best practice standard and report the finding back to upper management.
- C. Establish a review committee that assesses the importance of suppliers and ranks them according to contract renewals. At the time of contract renewal, incorporate designs and operational controls into the contracts and a right-to-audit clause. Regularly assess the supplier's post-contract renewal with a dedicated risk management team.
- D. Establish a governance program that rates suppliers based on their access to data, the type of data, and how they access the data Assign key controls that are reviewed and managed based on the supplier's rating. Report finding units that rely on the suppliers and the various risk teams.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A governance program that rates suppliers based on their access to data, the type of data, and how they access the data is the best way to manage the risk of handling and security of customer data by third parties. This allows the company to assign key controls that are reviewed and managed based on the supplier's rating and report findings to the relevant units and risk teams. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2018/volume-1/third-party-risk-management
NEW QUESTION # 256
A company's Internet connection is commonly saturated during business hours, affecting Internet availability.
The company requires all Internet traffic to be business related.
After analyzing the traffic over a period of a few hours, the security administrator observes the following:
The majority of the IP addresses associated with the TCP/SSL traffic resolve to CDNs.
Which of the following should the administrator recommend for the CDN traffic to meet the corporate security requirements?
- A. Further investigate the traffic using a sanctioned MITM proxy.
- B. Block outbound SSL traffic to prevent data exfiltration.
- C. Confirm the use of the CDN by monitoring NetFlow data
- D. Implement an IPS to drop packets associated with the CDN.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 257
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a small wholesaler with low margins is concerned about the use of a newly developed artificial intelligence algorithm being used in the organization's marketing tool. The tool can make automated purchasing approval decisions based on data provided by customers and collected from the Internet. Which of the following is MOST likely the concern? (Choose two.)
- A. Adversarial attacks
- B. Customer approval speed
- C. Information bias
- D. Customer privacy
- E. Cost to maintain
- F. Required computing power
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Customer privacy will be an issue because the AI is collecting data from the internet and that may not be completely legal and can affect customer privacy.
Information bias because the information provided by the customer may not be accurate and the AI is not able to ensure the validity of that information.
NEW QUESTION # 258
An auditor needs to scan documents at rest for sensitive text. These documents contain both text and Images. Which of the following software functionalities must be enabled in the DLP solution for the auditor to be able to fully read these documents? (Select TWO).
- A. Watermarking
- B. Optical character recognition functionality
- C. Advanced rasterization
- D. Baseline image matching
- E. Regular expression pattern matching
- F. Document interpolation
Answer: B,F
NEW QUESTION # 259
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